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When my husband and I got married, we lived in a house he owned before the marriage. We live somewhere else now, but he still owns the house (he rents it out to some friends). We want to get a divorce; can I claim half the house's value since it was our matrimonial home?
No, you cannot make this claim. In order for a home to be the matrimonial home for equalization purposes, you have to be living in the house at the date of separation. Furthermore, because he brought it into the marriage with him, he can deduct the value of the house on the date of marriage from his net family property.
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